Confusing wording in section on posterior distribution

[atharva-kelkar]

Hi,

You state that "In contrast to the prior distribution, we set the mean to \mu=0.".

Would this be clearer if it stated "In contrast to the prior distribution where we set the mean to \mu=0, the resulting distribution will most likely have a non-zero mean \mu’ \neq 0"?

Or is there something I'm missing and not understanding correctly?

[grtlr]

You are right, this seems weird. I will take a look at it later today. Thank you for filing this!